Postado em CCNA 1 - Fundamentos de Rede (V4.0) - 28 Fevereiro 2010 - 1 comentário - 123,971 views
1 . O protocolo de camada de aplicação é comumente utilizado para suportar a transferência de arquivos entre um cliente e um servidor?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet
2 . Quais são as duas formas de software de camada de aplicação? (Escolha duas.)
aplicações
diálogos
pedidos
serviços
sintaxe
3 . Uma rede de administrador está projetando uma rede para um novo ramo de escritório de vinte e cinco usuários. Quais são as vantagens de utilizar um modelo cliente-servidor? (Escolha duas.)
administração centralizada
não requer especializado software
segurança é mais fácil de aplicar
implementação menor custo
fornece um ponto único de falha
4 . Qual é o propósito de registros de recursos no DNS?
temporariamente contém entradas resolvidos
usado pelo servidor para resolver nomes
enviado pelo cliente para durante uma consulta
passa as informações de autenticação entre o servidor eo cliente
5 . Qual é o serviço automatizado que corresponda nomes de recursos com o endereço IP necessário?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6 . Quais são os três protocolos operam na camada de Aplicação do modelo OSI? (Escolha três.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP
7 . Quais são as três propriedades de peer-to-peer aplicações? (Escolha três.)
age como um cliente e um servidor dentro da mesma comunicação.
requer a administração centralizada de contas.
modo híbrido inclui um directório centralizado de arquivos.
pode ser usada em redes cliente-servidor.
requer uma conexão física direta entre os dispositivos.
autenticação centralizada é necessária.
8 . Quais protocolos de camada de aplicação corretamente com uma função correspondente? (Escolha duas.)
DNS dinamicamente aloca endereços IP para hosts
HTTP transfere dados de um servidor web para um cliente
POP oferece e-mail do cliente para o servidor servidor de e-mail
SMTP suporta compartilhamento de arquivo
Telnet oferece uma conexão virtual para acesso remoto
9 . Quais componentes de e-mail são usados para reencaminhar mensagens entre os servidores? (Escolha duas.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA
10 . Em comparação com o SSH, que é a principal desvantagem de telnet?
não é amplamente disponível
não suporta criptografia
consome mais largura de banda de rede
não suporta a autenticação
11 . Quais afirmações estão corretas a respeito do papel do MTA em lidar com e-mail? (Escolha três.)
rotas de e-mail para o MDA em outros servidores
recebe e-mail do MUA do cliente
recebe e-mail através do protocolo POP3
passa-mail para o MDA para a entrega final
usa SMTP para e-mail rota entre servidores
oferece e-mail para os clientes através do protocolo POP3
12 . Quais são os dois protocolos são usados para controlar a transferência de recursos da web a partir de um servidor web para um browser do cliente? (Escolha duas.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP
13 . Uma pequena rede doméstica foi instalado para interligar três computadores em conjunto para jogos e compartilhamento de arquivos. Quais são as duas propriedades representam este tipo de rede? (Escolha duas.)
As contas de usuário são centralizados.
Segurança é difícil de aplicar.
Especializada sistema operacional de software é necessário.
Permissões de arquivo são controlados por um único computador .
Um computador que responde a um pedido de compartilhamento de arquivos está funcionando como um servidor.
14 . Qual camada do modelo OSI fornece serviços que permitem ao usuário interagir com a rede?
físico
sessão
rede
apresentação
aplicação
transporte
15 .
Consulte a exposição. Qual é a porta de destino para a comunicação que é representada na linha 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16 . Quais são as duas características de peer-to-peer? (Escolha duas.)
escalável
uma forma de fluxo de dados
recursos descentralizados
centralizados contas de usuário
compartilhamento de recursos sem um servidor dedicado
17 . O protocolo de camada de aplicação descreve os serviços que são utilizados para compartilhamento de arquivos em redes Microsoft?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18 . Quais são as duas características dos clientes em redes de dados? (Escolha duas.)
usar daemons
iniciar a troca de dados
são repositórios de dados
pode transferir dados para servidores
escutar as solicitações dos servidores
19 . Qual é o papel da camada de aplicação OSI?
fornece segmentação dos dados
fornece criptografia e conversão de dados
fornece o interface entre as aplicações em cada extremidade da rede
proporciona um controlo de todos os dados que fluem entre a fonte eo destino dispositivos
20 . Como a camada de aplicativo em um servidor normalmente processar a solicitação cliente múltiplo de serviços?
deixa todas as ligações para o serviço
nega múltiplas conexões para um único daemon
suspende a conexão atual para permitir que a nova conexão
usa o suporte de funções da camada inferior para distinguir entre as conexões para o serviço
Qual declaração descreve com precisão o compartilhamento de arquivos em uma rede peer-to-peer? , CCNA 1 Capítulo 3 V4 0 Respostas e Qual é a afirmação descreve com precisão o compartilhamento de arquivos em uma rede peer-to-peer , eNetwork Capítulo 3 - Exploração CCNA: Fundamentos de Rede (versão 4 0) e eNetwork capítulo 3 ccna rede exploração fundamentos versão 4 0 respostas , eNetwork capítulo 3 respostas , cisco capítulo 3 , capítulo 3 eNetwork ccna rede exploração fundamentos versão 4 0 resposta , CCNA 1 capítulo 3 exame , CCNA 1 capítulo 3 respostas do exame
Tags: CCNA 1 , CCNA 1 Módulo 3 Respostas 2010 e CCNA Exploration 1 Capítulo 3 Respostas e CCNA Exploration 1 Módulo 3 Respostas para exames , CCNA Módulo 3 Respostas , CCNA1 Chapter3 , Cisco CCNA 1 Capítulo 3 Respostas para exames , Capítulo Fundamentos de Rede 3 Respostas
segunda-feira, 26 de março de 2012
sábado, 24 de março de 2012
Todos os outros gabaritos
Quem tá tentando traduzir tudo, o google chrome já faz isso pra vc, te dá a opção de traduzido ou não.
CCNA CISCO ANSWERS: Search results for ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 3
CCNA CISCO ANSWERS: Search results for ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 3
Esse aqui a Isa me mandou, como podem ver é outro 2 diferente
Erouting v4.0 Chapter 2
Posted by Santhosh Kumar Wednesday, February 18, 2009
Expect minimum percentage: 100%
1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate
2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set
5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.
7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table
8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25
9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route
10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device
13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route
18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface
19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21
23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
Posted by Santhosh Kumar Wednesday, February 18, 2009
Expect minimum percentage: 100%
1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate
2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set
5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.
7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table
8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25
9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route
10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device
13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route
18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface
19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21
23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
Cap 3
Erouting v4.0 Chapter 3
Posted by Santhosh Kumar Saturday, February 7, 2009 comments (11)
Expect minimum percentage: 100%
1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route
4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3
8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations
12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing
16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.
20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance
Posted by Santhosh Kumar Saturday, February 7, 2009 comments (11)
Expect minimum percentage: 100%
1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route
4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3
8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations
12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing
16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.
20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance
quinta-feira, 22 de março de 2012
CCNA
http://answersforccna.blogspot.com.br/2008/11/enetwork-v40-chapter-2.html
Expect minimum percentage: 83%
1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link
2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection
3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.
4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch
5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network
6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows
7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host
8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network A -- LAN
10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing
12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation
13)Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
ans:
an end device
14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J
15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary
16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN
18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets
19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow
20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations
Expect minimum percentage: 83%
1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link
2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection
3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.
4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch
5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network
6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows
7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host
8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network A -- LAN
10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing
12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation
13)Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
ans:
an end device
14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J
15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary
16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN
18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets
19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow
20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations
domingo, 11 de março de 2012
Roteamento dinamico
Roteamento Dinâmico
Como visto, no roteamento estático as informações que um roteador
precisa saber para poder encaminhar pacotes corretamente aos seus
destinos são colocadas manualmente na tabela de rotas.
Diferentemente, no roteamento dinâmico, os roteadores podem
descobrir estas informações automaticamente e compartilhá-la com
outros outros roteadores roteadores via via protocolos protocolos dede roteamento roteamento dinâmicos dinâmicos..
Um protocolo de roteamento dinâmico é uma linguagem que um
roteador fala com outros roteadores a fim de compartilhar
informações sobre alcançabilidade e estado das redes.
Protocolos de roteamento dinâmico permitem determinar o próximo
melhor caminho para um destino se o atual torna-se inacessível
devido à queda de um link ou se uma região fica inacessível em
virtude do congestionamento.
Esta capacidade de se adaptar (compensar) às mudanças
de topologia é a vantagem mais importante que o
roteamento dinâmico oferece quando comparado ao
roteamento estático.
Apesar Apesar das das suas suas vantagens vantagens::
Protocolos de roteamento dinâmico criam tráfego extra na rede.
Podem ocorrer loops de pacotes enquanto a informação de
roteamento está sendo trocada entre os roteadores
Enquanto os roteadores tentam entender o que está acontecendo
pacotes para um mesmo destino podem ser enviados por rotas
diferentes e links bidirecionais podem ser tratados de forma
distinta, confundindo o gerenciamento da rede e as aplicações de
rede em execução.
Todo protocolo de roteamento dinâmico é construído
sobre um algoritmo.
O algoritmo de roteamento deve, no mínimo, especificar o
seguinte:
Um procedimento para passar informação de alcançabilidade de
redes a outros roteadores;
Um procedimento para receber informação de alcançabilidade de
outros roteadores;
Um procedimento para determinar rotas ótimas baseado na
informação de alcançabilidade disponível e para armazenar essa
informação na tabela de rotas;
Um procedimento para reagir a, compensar e divulgar mudanças
de topologia em uma internet.
A maioria dos protocolos de roteamento dinâmico caem
em uma das duas categorias: distance vector ou link state.
Questões comuns a qualquer algoritmo de roteamento:
Determinação de caminho (path determination)
Métrica Métrica ((metrics metrics))
Número de saltos (hop count)
Largura de banda (bandwidth)
Carga (load)
Retardo (delay)
Alcançabilidade (reachability)
Custo (cost)
Convergência (convergence)
Os endereços das interfaces de rede nos
roteadores são os pontos de origem de
informações de alcançabilidade.
Cada roteador tem conhecimento das redes a ele
diretamente conectadas pelos endereços e
máscaras a elas assinaladas.
Cada interface implementa os protocolos das
camadas de enlace e física da rede à qual está
conectada; logo o roteador também sabe o estado
da rede (up ou down)
MAIS DETALHES EM: http://www.inf.ufes.br/~zegonc/material/S.O.%20II/Roteamento%20Dinamico.pdf
Como visto, no roteamento estático as informações que um roteador
precisa saber para poder encaminhar pacotes corretamente aos seus
destinos são colocadas manualmente na tabela de rotas.
Diferentemente, no roteamento dinâmico, os roteadores podem
descobrir estas informações automaticamente e compartilhá-la com
outros outros roteadores roteadores via via protocolos protocolos dede roteamento roteamento dinâmicos dinâmicos..
Um protocolo de roteamento dinâmico é uma linguagem que um
roteador fala com outros roteadores a fim de compartilhar
informações sobre alcançabilidade e estado das redes.
Protocolos de roteamento dinâmico permitem determinar o próximo
melhor caminho para um destino se o atual torna-se inacessível
devido à queda de um link ou se uma região fica inacessível em
virtude do congestionamento.
Esta capacidade de se adaptar (compensar) às mudanças
de topologia é a vantagem mais importante que o
roteamento dinâmico oferece quando comparado ao
roteamento estático.
Apesar Apesar das das suas suas vantagens vantagens::
Protocolos de roteamento dinâmico criam tráfego extra na rede.
Podem ocorrer loops de pacotes enquanto a informação de
roteamento está sendo trocada entre os roteadores
Enquanto os roteadores tentam entender o que está acontecendo
pacotes para um mesmo destino podem ser enviados por rotas
diferentes e links bidirecionais podem ser tratados de forma
distinta, confundindo o gerenciamento da rede e as aplicações de
rede em execução.
Todo protocolo de roteamento dinâmico é construído
sobre um algoritmo.
O algoritmo de roteamento deve, no mínimo, especificar o
seguinte:
Um procedimento para passar informação de alcançabilidade de
redes a outros roteadores;
Um procedimento para receber informação de alcançabilidade de
outros roteadores;
Um procedimento para determinar rotas ótimas baseado na
informação de alcançabilidade disponível e para armazenar essa
informação na tabela de rotas;
Um procedimento para reagir a, compensar e divulgar mudanças
de topologia em uma internet.
A maioria dos protocolos de roteamento dinâmico caem
em uma das duas categorias: distance vector ou link state.
Questões comuns a qualquer algoritmo de roteamento:
Determinação de caminho (path determination)
Métrica Métrica ((metrics metrics))
Número de saltos (hop count)
Largura de banda (bandwidth)
Carga (load)
Retardo (delay)
Alcançabilidade (reachability)
Custo (cost)
Convergência (convergence)
Os endereços das interfaces de rede nos
roteadores são os pontos de origem de
informações de alcançabilidade.
Cada roteador tem conhecimento das redes a ele
diretamente conectadas pelos endereços e
máscaras a elas assinaladas.
Cada interface implementa os protocolos das
camadas de enlace e física da rede à qual está
conectada; logo o roteador também sabe o estado
da rede (up ou down)
MAIS DETALHES EM: http://www.inf.ufes.br/~zegonc/material/S.O.%20II/Roteamento%20Dinamico.pdf
terça-feira, 6 de março de 2012
Cursos Online da microsoft
http://www.microsoft.com/brasil/educacao/comunidadeacademica/estudantes/s2b.mspx
________________________________________________________________________________________________
Conheça o Programa Microsoft Students to Business
O programa Students to Business é uma iniciativa da Microsoft, dos Parceiros da Microsoft e as principais universidades do país com o objetivo de capacitar estudantes nas áreas de TI e oferecer oportunidades de emprego.
Para isso inclui diversas ações, sendo as principais capacitações gratuitas nas plataformas Microsoft e aproximação com empresas que buscam mão-de-obra com esse perfil. O programa é constituído de treinamento Online e também Presencial. Para o treinamento presencial, é necessário verificar disponibilidade na sua cidade. Para mais informações acesso o manual do aluno.
O Programa Microsoft Students to Business capacitou, até o momento mais de 100 mil estudantes em todo o Brasil, dos quais mais de 10.000 profissionais foram incorporados imediatamente no mercado de trabalho durante a feira de empregos.
Você também pode ser um deles!!!
________________________________________________________________________________________________
Conheça o Programa Microsoft Students to Business
O programa Students to Business é uma iniciativa da Microsoft, dos Parceiros da Microsoft e as principais universidades do país com o objetivo de capacitar estudantes nas áreas de TI e oferecer oportunidades de emprego.
Para isso inclui diversas ações, sendo as principais capacitações gratuitas nas plataformas Microsoft e aproximação com empresas que buscam mão-de-obra com esse perfil. O programa é constituído de treinamento Online e também Presencial. Para o treinamento presencial, é necessário verificar disponibilidade na sua cidade. Para mais informações acesso o manual do aluno.
O Programa Microsoft Students to Business capacitou, até o momento mais de 100 mil estudantes em todo o Brasil, dos quais mais de 10.000 profissionais foram incorporados imediatamente no mercado de trabalho durante a feira de empregos.
Você também pode ser um deles!!!
sexta-feira, 2 de março de 2012
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